small network with unifi AP and guest access
I'm trying to learn quite a bit about VLANs and still my head is spinning ...
I have a really small network consisting of
- a Huawei LTE-Internet router (very basic network konfiguration) that does WLAN too. And it does the DHCP, so it has to respond on broadcast queries.
- a TL-SG108PE
- a few office devices plugged to this switch.
So far so easy. No VLAN, no separation. The WLAN is for internal use only.
Now this setup should be expanded with an external Unifi-AP that takes over the WLAN broadcast instead of the HUAWEI, mostly to cover more space. With an LTE router the device has to be placed where you have good externel conection, which is not always the optimum place to spread the WLAN.
... and because the AP is capable to broadcast more than one SSID and separate them by different VLAN numbers, this should be used to span a "guest" WLAN that has access to the internet-router, but not to the rest of the LAN.
My understanding so far:
I need at leas two VLANs.
- Default: ID1
- Guest: ID2
Since none of the LAN devices knows anything about VLAN tagging and the internet router is equally ignorant, all ports mist not have VLAN "tagged", and have eventual IDs removed when sending out of this port.
The AP is configured to use VLAN1 for the "office-internal" SSID and VLAN2 for the "guest" SSID.
The AP is connected to Port1 (due to PoE) and this port is configured as "member of VLAN1 + member of VLAN2" and "untagged"(?)
The router is connected to Port8 and is configured as "member of VLAN1 + member of VLAN2" and "untagged"
The rest of the ports (2-7) are configured as "member of VLAN1" and "untagged"
The PVID is kept to "VLAN1" for all ports.
A LAN device plugged in Port2 requesting IP-address and internet access should work as before, since all partners are part of VLAN1.
A WLAN device booked into "office-internal" would act alike and is able to communicate both with the router and all LAN devices
A WLAN device booked into "guest" will get the DHCP broadcast forwarded to the router (the LAN devices do not see the packet, due to VLAN mismatch). The reply from the router (untagged) get's tagged internally to "1" due to the PVID=1 on Port 8. It is still forwarded to Port8 (because it's member of VLAN1).
Since Port8 is "untagged", the AP does get the packet and because there is no more VLAN ID attached
- it trasches the packet, because it is lacking a proper VLAN-ID?
- it still forwards it to the correct client based on the target IP-address?
- it tries to forward the package into VLAN1, as that's the default one?
Would this simple scenario would work as expected?
If I instead define the AP port1 as "tagged", a packet from the router to a client on the AP would inherit the PVID that might be configured for the AP port1 - which would force the packet into just one of the SSIDs, even if the originating request was in the other? The router did not know about any VLAN-ID thus cannot respond properly.
Right? Wrong? Dumb?
I have seen configurations that require a third VLAN just for the router and all ports member of that one, but that does not correspond to my dual VLAN in the AP. I don't see the difference to using VLAN1 instead that already IS part of all ports.